Nr 507 weekwise quizzes week 1 – 7 (version no. 3)

1.  Question: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

2.  Question: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

3.  Question: After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

4.  Question: Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

5.  Question: What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

6.  Question: Which statement about vaccines is true?

7.  Question: A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.

8.  Question: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

9.  Question: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

10.  Question: What is the mechanism in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

11.  Question: What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?

12.  Question: In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

13.  Question: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

14.  Question: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

15.  Question: What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

16.  Question: Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

17.  Question: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

18.  Question: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

19.  Question: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

20.  Question: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-) in cell metastasis?

21.  Question: In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

22.  Question: Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

23.  Question: Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

24.  Question: Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

25.  Question: Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

1.  Question: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

2.  Question: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

3.  Question: What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses?

4.  Question: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of

5.  Question: Which are indications of dehydration?

6.  Question: Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate

7.  Question: How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis?

8.  Question: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

9.  Question: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?

10.  Question: Kussmaul respirations may be characterized as a respiratory pattern

11.  Question: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.

12.  Question: _____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.

13.  Question: Dyspnea is not a result of

14.  Question: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through

15.  Question: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

16.  Question: Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma?

17.  Question: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating

18.  Question: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with

19.  Question: Which of the following types of croup is most common?

20.  Question: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.

21.  Question: Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma?

22.  Question: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

23.  Question: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

24.  Question: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

25.  Question: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

1.  Question: In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when

2.  Question: Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?

3.  Question: Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

4.  Question: Clinical manifestations of mild to moderate splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of which anemia?

5.  Question: Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

6.  Question: The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.

7.  Question: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

8.  Question: Which of the following is a description consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

9.  Question: What change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?

10.  Question: What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?

11.  Question: The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait

12.  Question: In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

13.  Question: Polycythemia occurs in a fetus because

14.  Question: Erythroblastosis fetalis is defined as an

15.  Question: What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?

16.  Question: G6PD and sickle cell disease are

17.  Question: In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?

18.  Question: Which form of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure?

19.  Question: What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?

20.  Question: Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?

21.  Question: Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?

22.  Question: When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise?

23.  Question: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

24.  Question: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

25.  Question: What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

1. Question: Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located

2.  Question: Where is oxytocin synthesized?

3.  Question: A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

4.  Question: What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

5.  Question: What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)?

6.  Question: A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone?

7.  Question: Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

8.  Question: Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

9.  Question: The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary.

10.  Question: Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

11.  Question: When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.

12.  Question: Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

13.  Question: The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is

14.  Question: The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the

15.  Question: Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) in adults?

16.  Question: What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?

17.  Question: Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

18.  Question: Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

19.  Question: The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute

20.  Question: The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually

21.  Question: Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of

22.  Question: The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is

23.  Question: Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)?

24.  Question: A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

25.  Question: Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia are each caused by a

1.  Question: A(n) _____ fracture is a fracture at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality, usually by a force that would not normally cause a fracture.

2.  Question: Which of the following attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

3.  Question: _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

4.  Question: Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone?

5.  Question: What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

6.  Question: Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by

7.  Question: Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

8.  Question: Cerebral palsy is usually a result of

9.  Question: An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

10.  Question: Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

11.  Question: Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with

12.  Question: Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s

13.  Question: The _____ is cartilage that retains the ability to form and calcify new cartilage and deposit bone until the skeleton matures.

14.  Question: The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

15.  Question: Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta?

16.  Question: Chickenpox may be followed years later by

17.  Question: Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with a(n)

18.  Question: Which immunoglobulin is found in skin biopsy with immunofluorescent observation of people with discoid lupus erythematosus?

19.  Question: Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.

20.  Question: Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?

21.  Question: Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis?

22.  Question: Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by

23.  Question: What is the cause of chickenpox?

24.  Question: Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?

25.  Question: What is a common source of tinea corporis?

1.  Question: Dilated and sluggish pupils, widening pulse pressure, and bradycardia are clinical findings evident of which stage of intracranial hypertension?

2.  Question: What are the areas of the brain that mediate several cognitive functions, including vigilance, reasoning, and executive functions?

3.  Question: Subarachnoid hemorrhage causes communicating hydrocephalus by obstructing

4.  Question: Which description is consistent with a complex partial seizure?

5.  Question: Which disease process is infratentorial?

6.  Question: Most dysphasias are associated with cerebrovascular accidents involving which artery?

7.  Question: Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities?

8.  Question: With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to

9.  Question: What are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury?

10.  Question: A man was in an automobile accident in which his forehead struck the windshield. A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to the _____ region.

11.  Question: Why does a person who has a spinal cord injury experience faulty control of sweating?

12.  Question: Which disorder has clinical manifestations that include decreased consciousness for up to 6 hours as well as retrograde and posttraumatic amnesia?

13.  Question: Which is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

14.  Question: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used to treat depression

15.  Question: What are the most common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

16.  Question: Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the

17.  Question: The neural groove closes dorsally during the _____ week of gestational life.

18.  Question: Spina bifida occulta is characterized by a(n)

19.  Question: Intussusception causes intestinal obstruction by

20.  Question: _____ vomiting is caused by direct stimulation of the vomiting center by neurologic lesions involving the brainstem.

21.  Question: Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis?

22.  Question: Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?

23.  Question: Which of the following medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis?

24.  Question: Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system.

25.  Question: An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that after the infant passed a normal stool, the stools look like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect?