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Albertus Final Exam

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1. Imprinting is of particular concern to _____ theorists.
  A) bioecological
  B) psychoanalytic
  C) ethological
  D) social learning



2. Bronfenbrenner was the founder of:
  A) the bioecological model.
  B) the theory of social cognition.
  C) the psychosexual perspective.
  D) behaviorism.



3. The family is part of which level of the bioecological model?
  A) the mesosystem
  B) the microsystem
  C) the macrosystem
  D) the chronosystem



4. _____ is part of the mesosystem.
  A) Parents’ contact with a child’s soccer coach
  B) Societal importance placed on athletic prowess of boys
  C) A child’s favorite TV show
  D) A father’s job as a truck driver



5. The chronosystem involves the:
  A) settings in which the child is not a direct participant.
  B) change in person or environment over time.
  C) general beliefs, values, customs, and laws of the larger society.
  D) activities, roles, and relationships in which the child directly participates.


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6. Children with ADHD:
  A) tend to be of below-average intelligence.
  B) typically show severe emotional disturbances.
  C) have difficulty inhibiting impulses to act.
  D) are more likely to be female.


7. Walter Mischel’s procedure in which preschool children were asked to wait for a considerable amount of time in order to receive a greater number of treats was designed to assess which characteristic?
  A) intelligence
  B) attentiveness
  C) delay of gratification
  D) social competence



8. Discrete emotions theory holds that:
  A) the basic emotions are innate and distinct from early in life.
  B) emotional facial expressions must be learned.
  C) a select few emotions are present at birth, and the others are a function of experience.
  D) children must learn to fear strangers.



9. The FIRST clear sign of happiness in infants is:
  A) the expression of love toward the mother.
  B) the social smile.
  C) laughter.
  D) smiling.



10. Social smiles tend to emerge by the _____ month of life.
  A) 1st
  B) 2nd
  C) 3rd
  D) 6th



11. Separation anxiety or distress due to separation from the parent who is the child’s primary caregiver emerges around
  A) 4 months of age
  B) 5 months of age
  C) 7 months of age
  D) 8 months of age



12. Which emotion is thought to have an evolutionary basis as it helps humans avoid potential poisons or disease-causes bacteria?
  A) surprise
  B) sadness
  C) anger
  D) disgust



13. The initial signs of fear develop at approximately _____ months of age.
  A) 6 to 7
  B) 2 to 3
  C) 4 to 5
  D) 8 to 9


14. Extensively discussing emotional problems with a peer is referred to as:
  A) rumination.
  B) co-rumination.
  C) reiteration.
  D) co-reiteration.



15. Attachments are:
  A) enduring emotional bonds formed by children to their primary caregivers.
  B) compulsive needs of children to hold security items, such as pacifiers and blankets.
  C) connections between siblings that are maintained throughout the life span.
  D) qualities that are central to one’s identity.



16. Attachment theory was proposed by:
  A) Harlow.
  B) Ainsworth.
  C) Bowlby.
  D) Lorenz.



17. Bowlby proposed that attachment:
  A) occurs toward the first moving person an infant sees.
  B) is rooted in evolution.
  C) is necessary for identity development.
  D) has at its center the notion of a needy, dependent infant.



18. Darrell exhibits separation distress when his mother leaves and happily greets her when she returns. He uses her as a secure base and actively seeks out contact with his mother. Bowlby would consider Darrell to be in which phase of the development of attachment?
  A) attachment-in-the-making
  B) reciprocal relationships
  C) preattachment
  D) clear-cut attachment



19. In the Strange Situation, baby Jacob plays actively with the toys in the room, occasionally looking back to check on his mother, and is mildly distressed when his mother leaves the room, but he is easily comforted by her return. Jacob falls into which attachment category?
  A) disorganized/disoriented
  B) insecure/resistant
  C) secure
  D) insecure/avoidant



20. Family dynamics refers to:
  A) how individual family members relate to the child.
  B) cultural variability in family structure.
  C) the changing nature of parent‒child relationships as children develop.
  D) how the family operates as a whole.



21. Parents who are high in warmth and high in control are considered to exhibit which parenting style?
  A) permissive
  B) authoritative
  C) uninvolved
  D) authoritarian



22. Authoritative parents are those who:
  A) are abusive.
  B) are highly demanding and unresponsive.
  C) have little interest in disciplining their children.
  D) are attentive and consistent in their discipline.



23. Authoritarian parents are those who:
  A) are abusive.
  B) are highly demanding and unresponsive.
  C) have little interest in disciplining their children.
  D) are attentive and consistent in their discipline.



24. Children of which type of parents tend to be the most well-adjusted in terms of competence, antisocial behavior, and self-confidence?
  A) permissive
  B) authoritative
  C) uninvolved
  D) authoritarian



25. Four-year-old Derek is playing with his trucks and does not want to come to the dinner table. In response, his mother storms over to where he is playing, grabs his trucks away from him, and yells, “I told you to come eat dinner! Come to the table right now or I will throw those trucks in the garbage.” Derek’s mother is rarely affectionate with him, even in situations in which he is complying with her wishes. Derek’s mother would likely be classified as:
  A) permissive.
  B) authoritative.
  C) uninvolved.
  D) authoritarian.



  26. A negative stimulus that follows a behavior to reduce the likelihood that the behavior will occur again is called:
  A) discipline.
  B) punishment.
  C) internalization.
  D) externalization.


27. People of approximately the same age and status who are unrelated to one another are called:  
  A) friends.  
  B) peers.  
  C) acquaintances.  
  D) associated.  



28. Friendship is NOT defined as a relationship that is:
  A) characterized by reciprocities.
  B) between same-sex members.
  C) conflictual
  D) one sided.



29. Which element is a key factor in preschoolers’ choices of friends?
  A) proximity
  B) popularity
  C) race of child
  D) similarity of interests



30. Children’s preference for same-sex friends emerges in:
  A) toddlerhood.
  B) preschool.
  C) elementary school.
  D) middle school.



31. Pretend play involves:
  A) imaginary companions.
  B) taking the role of another person or character.
  C) symbolic actions.
  D) cooperating with another child.



32. At approximately what age do children tend to define their friends, to a greater extent, in terms of taking care of one’s needs, reducing loneliness, and sharing feelings?
  A) 5 years old
  B) 7 years old
  C) 9 years old
  D) 11 years old



33. What is the MOST common method of communication with friends used by those ages 12 to 17 years?
  A) texting
  B) phone calls
  C) social media
  D) email



34. _____ percent of adolescents aged 12 to 18 have reported some form of cyberbullying in the past school year.
  A) Three
  B) Seven
  C) Twelve
  D) Fourteen



35. Which form of cyberbullying is the MOST common?
  A) isolation
  B) rejection
  C) spreading rumors
  D) informing adults of previous actions



36. Which groups report experiencing more cyberbullying?
  A) males under the age of 13 and females
  B) females and LGBTQ youth
  C) males and females aged 12 to 15
  D) LGBTQ youth and African Americans

37. Individual differences in _____ have been shown to be associated with prosocial behavior.
  A) oxytocin
  B) serotonin
  C) dopamine
  D) norepinephrine



38. Disruptive, hostile, or aggressive behavior that violate social norms or rules and that harm or take advantage of others is called:
  A) antisocial behavior.
  B) juvenile offenses.
  C) prosocial behavior.
  D) status behavior.



39. Which behavior is NOT considered an example of aggression?
  A) hitting
  B) verbal insults
  C) excluding others
  D) helping others



40. Instrumental aggression is aggression motived by the desire:
  A) to obtain something concrete.
  B) for revenge.
  C) to damage another’s peer relationships.
  D) to harm another person.



41. Relational aggression is aggression motived by the desire:
  A) to obtain something concrete.
  B) for revenge.
  C) to damage another’s peer relationships.
  D) to harm another person.



42. Which scenario is an example of instrumental aggression?
  A) Tony pushes Joyce out of the way so that he can get to the swing first.
  B) Abe does not allow Justin to play ball with the other children.
  C) Amy tells Diana that she wants the paint brush that Diana is using.
  D) Natalie pushes Yolanda as she walks by her because Yolanda said something mean about Natalie’s sister.



43. Excluding an individual from a play group is an example of _____ aggression.
  A) physical
  B) relational
  C) instrumental
  D) direct



44. Eleven-year-old Shane is angry and defiant and loses his temper easily. He can be spiteful and vindictive, he actively defies adults, and he blames others for his misbehavior. Shane’s behaviors are indicative of:
  A) ADHD.
  B) oppositional defiant disorder.
  C) conduct disorder.
  D) a typical 11-year-old.



45. Early-onset conduct problems are NOT associated with:
  A) maternal stress.
  B) low maternal education.
  C) child neglect.
  D) being a member of an ethnic minority.



46. Conduct problems that emerge in adolescence are particularly likely to be associated with:
  A) maternal stress.
  B) low maternal education.
  C) child neglect.
  D) economic disadvantage.



47. Emotionally driven aggression that is incited by the belief that others have hostile motives is referred to as _____ aggression.
  A) proactive
  B) relational
  C) instrumental
  D) reactive


48. The biological processes involved in differences between males and females are referred to as relating to:
  A) sex.
  B) gender.
  C) gender typing.
  D) gender roles.



49. The term gender is conventionally used to refer to:
  A) one’s social categorization as male or female.
  B) one’s genetically specified category as male or female.
  C) behaviors associated with being male or female.
  D) biological processes involving hormones.



50. The process of socialization and development of males and females is referred to as:
  A) sex typing.
  B) gender typing.
  C) sex education.
  D) gender socialization.



51. Evolutionary psychologists view gender differences in behavior as stemming from:
  A) the history of the human species.
  B) differences in the contexts in which males and females reside.
  C) imitating same-sex models.
  D) gender segregation.



52. Evolutionary psychologists would be likely to view gender differences in mating habits as due to:
  A) differences in the roles society imposes on men and women.
  B) fundamental gender differences in what is necessary to have viable, successful offspring.
  C) gender differences in intelligence.
  D) observational learning during childhood.


53. _____ is an example of a domain-specific learning mechanism.
  A) Metacognition about strategy choice
  B) Recognizing objects as familiar
  C) Mutual exclusivity assumption in word learning
  D) Habituation



54. _____ is/are NOT an example(s) of a general cognitive process that contributes to development.
  A) Content knowledge
  B) Metacognition
  C) Strategies
  D) Scaffolding



55. Which statement provides an example of a behavioral change mechanism?
  A) Synapses that are not needed are reduced.
  B) Individuals generalize from one instance to another.
  C) Children who are athletic seek out athletic activities.
  D) Parents use social scaffolding to help children learn.



56. Which assertion is an assumption of stage theories?
  A) Not all children pass through stages in the same order.
  B) Transitions between stages can take a long time.
  C) When children are in a given stage, a broad range of their behavior is consistent with that stage.
  D) Transitions between stages are sporadic.



57. Which infant is unable to actively influence his environment?
  A) Andrew, who is blind
  B) Bobby, who is paralyzed
  C) Elias, who is severely cognitively impaired
  D) Andrew, Bobby, and Elias are all able to actively influence their environments.

































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